Oct 01, 2008 15:53
I know I'm setting myself up for a potential shit storm here, but can someone please explain to me how the Community Reinvestment Act 'forced' banks to offer sub-prime loans, and then how it forced mortgage brokers to push them on folks that really couldn't afford them?
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http://www.boingboing.net/2008/09/30/no-money-down.html
, it seems slightly partial though informative.
Cheers!
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I just don't see it, and was hoping that someone could explain the relationship to me.
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