How did Dumbledore defeat Grindlewald?

Aug 11, 2007 15:23

Hi everyone! Nice to see the numbers growing.

This is sort of a follow on question/ conundrum concerning Dumbledore and Grindlewald.

How did Dumbledore defeat Grindlewald (who had the elder wand which supposedly makes you unbeatable in a duel) and take the Elder Wand without actually killing Grindlewald? Does this make sense? Was this a slip up ( Read more... )

elder wand, grindlewald, dumbledore

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ashleyylauren August 11 2007, 21:48:44 UTC
Probably Expelliarmus. That's how Draco became the owner of it. I think I read/heard somewhere that defeating someone doesn't necessarily mean killing them.

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dis_netis August 12 2007, 11:34:08 UTC
Yeah, but if its an unbeatable wand, its not very unbeatable if expelliarmus can defeat it, is it? You're right, Draco does win it but maybe this is because Dumbledore allowed him to? I can't figure out how its meant to be unbeatable and yet expelliarmus works on it!

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gububba August 16 2007, 18:31:26 UTC
dis_netis August 17 2007, 12:18:35 UTC
Hmm nice thought. And that begs the question: if this is true why on earth did Grindlewald (a dark wizard) let DD win? Did he have an attack of conscience? I just can't figure this out.

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caedesdeo October 15 2007, 21:11:49 UTC
I'm firmly of the opinion that Dumbledore got Grindelwald completely and utterly wasted then punched his lights out. It makes perfect sense!

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