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Mar 21, 2008 23:07

I know I don't have to post today (because of the LJ "strike") but I just thought of a weird question. Are Mandarin Chinese (and all other people who speak a language that depends in large part on the tone at which it is spoken) who are tone-deaf considered to have a speech impediment?

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My dog anonymous March 22 2008, 21:24:23 UTC
Thanks Iain, I appreciate it.

-Taylor

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