Mar 08, 2010 14:08
Are likelihood functions ever non-differentiable?
Of course, you can always transform the parameters in such a way that you get a kink in the function... My question is whether this ever occurs naturally.
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UPDATE: clearly, if the likelihood for each data point is differentiable, then so is the likelihood for the whole data.
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Also, what does "naturally" mean in the original question?
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