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Jan 10, 2005 00:54

Philosophical question:
Can one commit prejudice against one's self and if so, can he or she ever look at themselves without considering that prejudice?

Maybe I'll have an answer to post later. My guess is I won't. It'll take a while for me to figure out.

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midnightravens January 10 2005, 06:06:27 UTC
most definitely can have a prejudice against one's self... and i don't know about the second part.

:shrugs: too late for this kind of thinking, martin. we don't need (but should have soon!) another utopia'ish conversation tonight, eh?

:hugs!:

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always_rejoice January 10 2005, 06:17:41 UTC
I am prejudiced against myself. I know this, and that answers your first question.

To the second half, if a man views himself as a general man and not as himself, I have done at times (though this would require a personal and prejudiced definition of Man), he isn't really having a prejudice against himself.

Does that help?

Keep in mind, prejudice does not always corrupt thought.

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