huh

Mar 23, 2010 21:06

contemplation: why do we disenfranchise ex-cons, exactly? I mean, I have a really hard time thinking that someone not deterred by the risk of jail time would be like man, I'd like to do X, but I could lose my right to *vote* out of this. And assuming that there is some rehabilitative value of prison, why does removing a level of engagement in ( Read more... )

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wyvernfree March 24 2010, 12:56:00 UTC
It's an ancient throwback. It dates back to the Roman Empire, when felons would lose their Roman citizenship (which was a very big disincentive at the time.) It made it into traditional English law and from there, shipped over to the US.

I agree with you, it makes no sense anymore. They've ditched it in England, and in a lot of states.

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