The skeptic that maintains that we entirely cannot trust our senses and that they are illusionary and counterfeit falls into a logical error. We should ask the skeptic how is it he imputes the quality of being counterfeit or being illusionary to the senses when, apparently, all our senses are indeed illusionary. For illusionary to have any meaning
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Okay, well, first off it is a logical error if skepticism is taken the way I meant it. I should have made it more clear. By "skepticism" I was referring to the outright skepticism of Parmenides, Zeno, Descartes, and other out-and-out rationalists that maintained that only reason can know anything of the truth and that adherence to empirical knowledge leads to paradox, folly, and falsehood. In fact, Zeno went so far as to demonstrate that motion and the plurality of reality were logically impossible and therefore we cannot trust our senses for they display these falsehoods of motion and division to us. Descartes believed that a deceitful demon was presenting to his perception nothing but lies and illusions.
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Example is that our senses react the same way to any stimuli and do not act in any dual mannerHow is this known? Through the senses, no? So by introducing this empirical evidence you ( ... )
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