so tonight...on the phone..
I was talking to this guy that i met in spanish class during my freshman year, we've really hit it off since then.. and we were talking about his english skills. He's quite proficient in the math and sciences, and even in grammar. However, writing/literature/etc dont bode as well with him. We were discussing these differences when he menitoned the
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sorry. that was entertaining.
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e^(pi*i) = -1 (this can be proven a multitude of ways. the easiest ones are trig functions on the complex plane and taylor series)
e^(2pi*i) = 1 (squaring)
so e^2pi*i = e^0 (since e^0 is 1)
ln e^2pi*i = ln e^0 (natural log of both sides)
2pi*i(ln e) = 0ln e (pulling exponents out front... property of logs)
ln e = 1, so
2pi*i = 0*1
2pi*i = 0
so 2 = 0 (divide each side by pi*i)!
is there an error in this proof? No.
There's an error in what you think the natural log really means.
And, vidiot, I didnt say catastro-phee-lick. Melissa can vouch for me :)
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