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Jul 23, 2007 19:27

harry potter

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eiffel July 23 2007, 18:55:18 UTC
False, JK is being date consistent. In Book 2, the trio goes to the deathday part of Nearly Headless Nick, who had been dead for 500 years. The cake says 1592. Plus 500 equals 1992, making Harry 12 in 1992, and making his birth year 1980. Ta-da! :D

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monkey_pants July 24 2007, 20:18:18 UTC
Yes, but that would make Harry 17 in the first book. So why is JK writing in the past?

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monkey_pants July 24 2007, 20:23:21 UTC
In actual terms I mean, not in Harry's world...good grief it's confusing. It does all work out, but I just don't get why JK is writing ten years in the past...

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monkey_pants July 24 2007, 20:22:00 UTC
True, but if Harry was born in 1980 even when the first book was written (1997) he would still have been 17. It's only been 10 years since the first one, which would only make a 3 year difference. As it is, there's a 6 year difference in book 1 (in real terms he was 17 in 1997 if born in 1980, but 11 in the book) and a 10 year difference in book 7 (if born in 1980, he would be 27 in real life, but is 17 in the book).

Why write in the past?

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midnight_fox13 July 26 2007, 16:11:26 UTC
I saw an interview in which she said that she'd been with Harry 17 years i.e. in imagination - it took ages for anyone to accept the first book for publishing. Might explain it at least partially?

Loved the book myself, read it within 24 hours after being geek enough to pick it up at midnight! Although many will say that having them all survive was a cop out I was very glad as I've been wishing for the two happy couples for at least four books!

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