Question...

Jun 22, 2005 14:49

I was looking at my glass of sparkling water and I wondered.... If you pour in one glass sparkling water and in the other mineral water, isn't there less water in the first glass because of well....the bubbles ( Read more... )

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Comments 3

xfairy1013 June 22 2005, 15:41:15 UTC
I dunno why, but I know that this question will give me an headache in the foresable future 8-)

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shimatsuno June 23 2005, 13:20:04 UTC
Well, the thought hinks a bit - it is still 1l of *sparkling* water, not 1l of mineral water...^^

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camera0bscura June 26 2005, 00:05:43 UTC
foreseeable* :D

Your word doesn't exist :P

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