So here I am, innocently reading a really fabulous Viking Critical Edition of "The Quiet American" and ploughing through some fairly standard, unobjectionable criticism of the book, dealing with themes of truth, religion, salvation, betrayal. Good stuff. Feeling pretty happy
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I read a snippet of Spivak for my Insurgencies class last semester. It wasn't all that terrible, but I did find myself wondering: once the subaltern get a voice, they're no longer subaltern! Leaving aside the logical conclusion that once everyone is heard, nobody's subaltern and poof goes "subaltern studies"; um, if a "subaltern" *is* heard, say in the form of a memoir a la Menchu, or in an interview in Progressive Populist, but their "voice" doesn't actually effectively change anything, um, are they still "subaltern"? I mean, does "subaltern" apply to voice, or power? I suppose the litcritters get out of it by applying the slash: "voice/power," but I don't happen to believe that the two are identical.
"negotiate a discursive relation"! oh god no.
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What are these people going to do if there is ever a situation in which a white middle class male is effectively a subaltern? I'm sure such situations arise in small circles, and I'd love to see what happens. Actually my father was very much a subaltern in the UW English Dept, which was filled primarily with cross Marxists and swelled Spivak-adherents.
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