I'm quite confused about this particular aspect of conspiracy: when you have 2 people who are charged with the crime and one of them is acquitted, does it necessarily mean the other must be acquitted? I've run across this in a couple of multiple choice questions and I'm sorta confused. I thought I remember the PMBR lecture say that at common law
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"It seems to have been an unbroken rule at common law, with cases on the point dating as early as A.D. 1410, that, when only two are charged with a conspiracy, and one of them is acquitted, the conviction of the other is void." DeLaney v. State (1932) 51 SW 2d 485, 487
Emphasis added to draw your attention to the point.
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1. If one D was acquitted on conspiracy, then other must be acquitted too because there can be no conspiracy with only one defendant.
2. If one D plead down to a lesser charge (instead of conspiracy) or was nolle prosequi - anything but acquitted on the merits - then the other D can be convicted of conspiracy.
There is also the old CL rule (Wharton rule) that said if it is a conspiracy to do an act that requires 2 ppl to commit the act e.g. dueling ... then no conspiracy unless there is a 3rd person involved.
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