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[soldier]

Okay I think this is it. #MarkovNumbers #Unicity it actually takes the #NumeratorConjecture for the proof. The only way to get ln (d1) - ln (d2) = 0 is if the coefficient on ln 3 is 0, which requires equal numerators. The numerator conjecture then applies to say that the rest is unequal unless the denominators are equal as well.

Comments

[soldier]

Nope still wrong