Not that anyone who reads this would care,

Jun 21, 2007 17:43

but I just stumbled upon another nifty property:

In the expansion of (x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + ... + xi)n

the coefficient of the term with (x1a1)(x2a2) ... (xiai)

equals n!/((a1!)(a2!)...(an!))

(thanks,
Read more... )

math

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Comments 5

prophet_elisha June 21 2007, 23:40:00 UTC
You're right.

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sombragris June 22 2007, 00:47:54 UTC
i think that's the first time you've ever said that to me.

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prophet_elisha June 22 2007, 22:20:22 UTC
I think that's the first time you've ever been right. :P

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blargh88 June 22 2007, 00:57:00 UTC
hmm the question now becomes...how did you "stumble" upon that lol?

i'm guessing project euler? :P

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aznstrawbeary June 22 2007, 18:06:38 UTC
dudeeee that's cool!

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