The general level of ignorance astounds me sometimes.
Granted, it took me until I was almost twenty to have that particular historico-culinary realization, but having been raised in NEITHER branch of the Judeo-Christian religious family tree I think I have at least a bit of an excuse.
I know that having two nights of Passover seders is ancient Jewish tradition. If this was common where and when Jesus was living, there's your answer. He could have been celebrating the first night of Passover, with a Passover seder to come the next night. In that case, there would be no contradictions. It does make me wonder why the eucharist is not matzah. I wonder what the difference is in terms of how the eucharist is made.
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Granted, it took me until I was almost twenty to have that particular historico-culinary realization, but having been raised in NEITHER branch of the Judeo-Christian religious family tree I think I have at least a bit of an excuse.
~ c.
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