I'm having trouble with D&C 132. Mostly verse 20, and the verses about polygamy (55-66 I think). How can God say to his prophet to once say
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Joseph had been practicing polygamy a while before this revelation and Emma did not like it. in many cases she did not know about some of the wives Joseph took. for instance in the cases of Emily and Eliza Partridge, two sisters who lived in the Smith's home for a while. Joseph married both of these girls in March of 1843 without Emma's knowledge. after this happened Emma finally agreed that Joseph could take more wives but she wanted to chose them. She chose Emily and Eliza, not knowing that Joseph had already married these two girls. Instead of telling her they had already wed he wed them again and kept from Emma that he already had married the girls
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Another, more basic principle, God has one ultimate goal (Moses 1:39). As such, anytime He does anything, it is to achieve that goal. So, requiring polygamy at times and revoking it at others does not mean God changes. He is still pursuing His goal. Not to mention that God has commanded us to obey the laws of the land. And the laws of the land said no polygamy, so we had to obey that. God revoked the commandment of polygamy to allow us to obey the laws of the land.
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I know that sounded simplistic. Sorry.
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