In my field-- medieval literary studies-- there's this trendy thing,
Object-oriented ontology"The rejection of post-Kantian privileging of human existence over the existence of nonhuman objects. Beginning with Kant's "Copernican revolution," modern philosophers began articulating a transcendental anthropocentrism, whereby objects are said to
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"objects exist independently of human perception" Did Kant deny this?
"nonhuman object relations distort their relata in the same fundamental manner as human consciousness."
Is this supposed to be true even for non-conscious objects? Seems both weird and pointless.
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But I could be wrong, and I don't know why you, specifically, should care.
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Excepting dear old Bishop Berkeley and his intellectual progeny, philosophers do not deny that plenty of objects and relations among objects exist independently of our cognition concerning these objects. What most philosophers deny is that we can have knowledge of these objects and their relations independent of our cognition concerning them ( ... )
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It reminds me of Romantic transcendentalism, but I really don't understand what critical purchase it gives people trying to understand human social and cultural practices.
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