So, if the California Supreme Court rules that Proposition 8 is valid yet upholds the legality of existing same sex marriages, does that mean that some gay couples are 'more equal' than others? How is it reconciled that certain arbitrary same sex couples* enjoy rights and privileges denied to the rest
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But, the legal civil unions vs. what is termed a marriage in California not proffered the same benefits and rights?
I've been going over and over this, trying to figure out if this is where some of the confusion is.
Don't get me wrong Prop 8 is a stupid is as stupid does rule.
But, it's not necessarily making the in-depth discussions around these parts -- and we probably have more discussions of it around these Emerald City parts than in other parts of the country.
Would love any input.
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Your fourth point is germain in so many instances, too.
One of my fav bumper stickers: Equal Rights are not Special Rights!
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