so, i found something interesting in my econ book and i wanted to know if it was always true
notation
let [a,b] = the closed interval from a to b
let (integral r) phi = the integral over the interval r of the function phi
let d = lim (epsilon->0+) delta
given a function f over Rlet g(x) = ( (integral [zero, x]) f(t) * dt ) / x
(
Read more... )